As I understand it, overall the difference in unavailable population data rose from 1% in 2006 to 3% in 2011, a difference of only 2% of overall population from which data was unavailable. Is that correct?
Conservative
Stephen Woodworth Conservative Kitchener Centre, ON
As I understand it, overall the difference in unavailable population data rose from 1% in 2006 to 3% in 2011, a difference of only 2% of overall population from which data was unavailable. Is that correct?
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